Exposing Hitler as Zionist

If Hitler was so hell-bent on expanding Germany’s borders and creating wealth through conquest, why wouldn’t he simply attack a non-allied European nation? This would be the obvious strategically responsible and ideologically consistent decision, but NOOO he just had to attack a nation that would violate the Treaty of Versailles and instigate an Allied military response, right? Why not just attack a non-White nation and actually be consistent with Nazi racial ideologies? Instead, the Nazis invaded White nations, in this sequence: Austria, Czechoslovakia, Poland, Denmark, Norway, Luxembourg, the Netherlands, Belgium, France, Yugoslavia, Greece. You often see Nazi propaganda talking about “stopping brother wars” and insinuating that Germany was just defending itself, and that it was the Allied forces that were attacking their brothers. However, they leave out the fact that Nazi Germany was instigating so-called brother wars in World War I and World War II. They invaded four in World War I and a dozen European nations in World War II alone. How is that based? And who can take Nazi Germany’s racial ideologies seriously when they made all kinds of loopholes and exceptions, while completely contradicting them by invading Germanic/Nordic nations?

The Nazi's stole over 175,000 church bells during WW2 from various European nations and melted them down for artillery and war supplies.

Align with other Europeans/European Nations? Nahhh, we'll attack them and align with non-Whites.

So was the Nazi reason for invading Poland justified? A balanced assessment would be: True: Germany had lost territory after WWI that contained millions of ethnic Germans, and many Germans genuinely believed the Treaty of Versailles had been unfair. True: Some disputed regions had German majorities and had been part of Germany for decades or centuries. False or misleading: The invasion of Poland was merely an effort to recover those lands. Germany invaded and occupied the entire country, and Nazi plans envisioned permanent conquest, colonization, and the elimination of Poland as a sovereign nation. In other words, the territorial disputes were real, but they do not fully explain the 1939 invasion. They served as a politically effective justification for a much larger expansionist program that extended far beyond the areas Germany had lost after World War I. When Neo-Nazi's use this tired old argument for taking back parts of Germany that were given to Poland, they skip over the fact that 2.8M White Poles were killed, and they leveled Warsaw flat and terrorized hundreds of villages. Poland was also getting slammed from the East by the Soviets in a secret alliance called the Molotov–Ribbentrop Pact—most neo-Nazi's usually aren't aware of the Bolshevik-Nazi collusion.

How Hitler exported his financial problems to other countries and built an economic model based on foreign conquest. Full video: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=EQKM5b1SoS0 Follow @redideologies

Continuation of: https://t.me/exposinghitler/1085 Image is From: David Irving, Hitler's War. This is what the neo-Nazis are cheering for. "An SS major was in command. Among those executed were also 5 or 6 [White Polish] children aged from two to eight years old." And I know for a fact that an immediate response from the Nazis might be "those cruel acts against the White Polish kids were just a response to the persecution of ethnic Germans living in Polish territories. " And here is the refutation: https://www.bitchute.com/video/eGaNuErtNHDF/ And the Bomberg massacre (which itself started only on 3rd September) was instigated by Abwehr: "By 2007 after several years of studying German archives, documents were uncovered in which General Erwin Lahousen praised action of German saboteurs in Bydgoszcz and organized delivery of supplies and medical help to them. German historian Jochen Böhler, in his publication about the invasion of Poland, published in 2006, wrote that new documents uncovered from the German archives proved that Polish soldiers were attacked by Abwehr Agents and members of the German minority." Yes that's right Hitler literally instigated a massacre that might result in the killing of ethnic Germans, so that he can use this as a reason why he attacked Poland, when in reality the real reason why he badly wanted to attack Poland is revealed in his May 1939 Speech. After all, Hitler said he will fabricate the cause of war, the Gleitzwitz incident, Jabłonków incident, and this instigation of the massacre in Bomberg, all speak for themselves, that he really meant when he said he will fabricate the cause of the war.

The "Economic Miracle" was due to massive rearmament (deficit spending on military), public works (Autobahn, etc.), conscription/labor service (RAD). It's not a free-market success at all. It was heavy state control, suppressed wages, longer hours (up 15%+), and "Strength Through Joy" (KdF). The recovery was military Keynesianism on steroids—borrowing heavily and gearing the economy for war. It wasn't sustainable without military conquest. When you conscript millions of people and massively increase spending on all of the industries surrounding the military, that's not an economic success story. So as the socialist nation that they were, all of the funding was coming from future tax burdens in order to pay for the military and government programs. They didn't just fund innovative industries and independent businesses in an capitalistic, open-market kind of way, everything was state run and geared towards supporting their military and was relying on expansionism.

"Hitler's anti-communism was a complete farce" Six points proving Hitler's opposition to communism was fake and self-serving

150,000 Jews in the Nazi Army. Mischlinge's (mixed Jew), and "Honorary Aryan" (Ehrenarier); so many exceptions being made from the so called virulent anti-Semite Nazi's. Paradoxical isn't it?

One of the first things the Nazis did after gaining power was to repeal the right to private property that was in the Weimar constitution. All property was subject to confiscation for the benefit of "the people." That says it all. Doesn't sound too ''ultra…

One of the first things the Nazis did after gaining power was to repeal the right to private property that was in the Weimar constitution. All property was subject to confiscation for the benefit of "the people." That says it all. Doesn't sound too ''ultra-capitalist'' does it? Sounds more statist/socialist type of societal structure.

Look at how many neo-Nazi organizations are currently active. They are a huge problem for the White Nationalist movement because they give normies the impression that WNs are militia/terrorist groups and promote all the things the normie has been taught their entire lives to detest. They want people to associate valid White identity politics with vile, evil Nazism, which has been burned in their brains from years of propaganda. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_neo-Nazi_organizations

The DARK Truth Behind Why Every Big Company Went WOKE | James Lindsay https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=yv5GD-1cs4o

The DARK Truth Behind Why Every Big Company Went WOKE | James Lindsay https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=yv5GD-1cs4o

Roosevelt was Jewish. Most Neo-Nazi's will entertain that 3 of the big 4 leaders in WW2 might have been Jewish, definitely Zionist, but for some reason they can't come to grips that Hitler himself might have been Jewish. The media presents Hitler as the epitome of an anti-Semite, but in reality, historically speaking, there was 150K Jews in the army, Hitler had many Jewish private staff, the work camps were accommodating and there is no evidence of any sort of extermination program (which Nazi's agree with), and they helped send Jews and their finances to Palestine to help establish Israel in the Havaara agreement. Does that seem like Hitler was the anti-Semite the media presents? One of the first military acts once Hitler took power was to bomb the graves of his ancestors, who does that if they have nothing to hide?

The claim of Neo-Nazis is that Germany offered ''peace deals'' multiple times, which were actually threats to surrender. So Poland should've just rolled over and accepted defeat? This attack was the catalyst for WW2, thus Nazi-Germany were the instigators.

150K Jews in the Nazi Army? How can that be, aren't the Nazi's the epitome of anti-Semitism and pro-White?

Can someone explain how the Nazi's were 'Pro-White'? Genuinely curious to know as to how one can have such extreme cognitive dissonance.