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Sequence محاضرة 5 part 1

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29. Perfusion parameters include all EXCEPT: A. rCBF B. rCBV C. MTT D. HU scale ✔ 30. The relationship between perfusion parameters is: A. CBV = CBF × MTT ✔ B. CBF = CBV × MTT C. MTT = CBV / CBF D. HU = CBV / MTT 31. Perfusion scans are repeatedly acquired at the level of: A. Vertex B. Brainstem C. Basal ganglia ✔ D. Cerebellum --- 9. Post-processing in CT Perfusion 32. Common reference artery used is: A. MCA B. PCA C. ACA ✔ D. ICA 33. Common reference vein used is: A. Vein of Galen B. Straight sinus C. Superior sagittal sinus ✔ D. Transverse sinus 34. ROI placement allows generation of: A. Bone windows B. Contrast-enhancement curves ✔ C. Scout images D. MPR only 35. Final perfusion results are displayed as: A. Gray-scale images B. Sagittal views C. Color-coded maps ✔ D. Plain radiographs --- 10. CT Scan of Petrous Bone 36. The petrous part of the temporal bone forms part of the: A. Facial skeleton B. Skull base ✔ C. Mandible D. Nasal cavity 37. Organs of hearing and balance are located in the: A. Mastoid air cells B. Squamous temporal bone C. Petrous ridge ✔ D. Occipital bone 38. Thin slices are used because: A. Organs are large B. Organs are tiny ✔ C. To reduce noise D. To shorten scan time 39. Typical petrous bone protocol uses: A. 5 mm slices B. Overlapping slices C. 2 mm thickness and increment ✔ D. 10 mm slices 40. Petrous bone scans are commonly obtained in: A. Axial plane only B. Coronal plane only C. Both axial and coronal planes ✔ D. Sagittal plane only --- 11. Indications for Petrous Bone CT 41. Non-contrast petrous CT is used for: A. Acoustic neuroma B. IAC tumors C. Cholesteatoma and fractures ✔ D. Vascular lesions 42. Contrast-enhanced petrous CT is used for: A. Fractures B. Inflammatory disease C. Internal auditory canal tumors ✔ D. Implants evaluation 43. For optimal resolution in petrous bone CT: A. Whole skull is imaged B. Only required petrosal region is imaged ✔ C. Large FOV is used D. Thick slices are used 44. Coronal imaging plane can be achieved by: A. Supine only B. Prone only C. Coronal reconstruction or prone with extended head ✔ D. Sitting position

--- Lecture 6 – General Imaging Methods for the Head (MCQs) 1. Head Positioning & Immobilization 1. The patient’s head is usually positioned using: A. Sandbags only B. Head holder or molded sponge ✔ C. Lead shield D. Compression band 2. Wedge sponges are used mainly to: A. Improve contrast resolution B. Increase radiation dose C. Prevent motion artifacts ✔ D. Enhance bone detail 3. Routine brain imaging is commonly performed using which technique? A. Helical coronal B. Axial step-and-shoot ✔ C. Sagittal cine D. Oblique helical --- 2. Image Planes & Slice Angulation 4. Axial to coronal imaging can be achieved by: A. Supine with chin down only B. Prone with chin extended forward ✔ C. Sitting position D. Standing position 5. The slice angle is determined by: A. Tube current only B. Slice thickness C. Patient head position and gantry angle ✔ D. Contrast volume 6. Brain slices are commonly programmed parallel to: A. Infraorbital line B. Orbitomeatal line ✔ C. Mid-sagittal line D. Frankfort line 7. The supraorbital meatal (glabellomeatal) line is preferred because it: A. Improves contrast B. Reduces scan time C. Reduces radiation to the eye lens ✔ D. Increases bone detail --- 3. Routine Head CT & Window Settings 8. Routine head CT studies are done using: A. Helical mode B. Cine mode C. Axial mode ✔ D. Spiral sagittal mode 9. CT angiography (CTA) studies are performed using: A. Axial mode B. Step-and-shoot C. Helical mode ✔ D. Cine mode 10. Standard soft tissue window for posterior fossa is: A. 100/30 B. 160/40 ✔ C. 2500/400 D. 200/60 11. Bone window setting is approximately: A. 160/40 B. 100/30 C. 2500/400 ✔ D. 200/60 12. Narrow window widths are used in brain imaging because: A. Brain has high contrast differences B. Gray and white matter have small attenuation differences ✔ C. To reduce noise D. To reduce dose --- 4. CT Angiography & Venography 13. CT angiography is used to visualize: A. Soft tissues only B. Bones only C. Arterial and venous vessels ✔ D. CSF spaces 14. CTA scans are performed using: A. Axial mode B. Step-and-shoot C. Helical mode with high flow contrast ✔ D. Cine mode 15. CT venography differs from CTA mainly in: A. Scan thickness B. Contrast type C. Timing of image acquisition (venous phase) ✔ D. Reconstruction algorithm 16. A main indication for CT venography is evaluation of: A. Brain tumors B. Skull fractures C. Dural sinus thrombosis ✔ D. Hydrocephalus --- 5. Stroke & Cerebral Circulation 17. Blood supply to the brain comes mainly from: A. One arterial system B. Carotid arteries only C. Vertebral arteries only D. Carotid and basilar systems ✔ 18. These systems are connected via the: A. Dural sinuses B. Circle of Willis ✔ C. Superior sagittal sinus D. Vein of Galen 19. The primary cause of stroke is: A. Infection B. Tumor C. Reduced blood flow ✔ D. Trauma --- 6. Types of Stroke 20. Ischemic stroke is caused by: A. Vessel rupture B. Low blood pressure C. Arterial blockage ✔ D. Infection 21. Embolic stroke occurs when: A. Clot forms locally B. Traveling clot lodges in a small artery ✔ C. Vessel ruptures D. Blood pressure drops 22. Hemorrhagic stroke is caused by: A. Arterial blockage B. Vessel wall tear and bleeding ✔ C. Low oxygen level D. Vasospasm 23. Hypotensive stroke results from: A. High blood pressure B. Low blood pressure ✔ C. Trauma D. Infection --- 7. CT Scan for Stroke 24. First-line imaging for suspected stroke is: A. MRI with contrast B. CTA C. Non-contrast CT brain ✔ D. CT perfusion 25. Non-contrast CT is essential to: A. Measure perfusion B. Detect tumors C. Differentiate ischemic from hemorrhagic stroke ✔ D. Evaluate veins 26. Ischemic stroke appears on CT as: A. Hyperdense area B. Hypodense area of edema ✔ C. Calcification D. Ring lesion 27. Acute hemorrhage appears on CT as: A. Hypodense area B. Isodense lesion C. Hyperdense mass ✔ D. Air density --- 8. CT Brain Perfusion 28. CT perfusion evaluates: A. Bone density B. CSF flow C. Cerebral blood flow ✔ D. Skull thickness

MCQs – Contrast Media (All Lectures) 1️⃣ Types of Contrast Media MCQ 1 Radiopaque contrast media are based mainly on: A. Oxygen and CO₂ B. Iodine and Barium ✔ C. Water D. Fat-soluble compounds MCQ 2 Radiolucent contrast media include: A. Iodine B. Barium C. Air and gas ✔ D. Gadolinium MCQ 3 The ideal contrast agent should be: A. Toxic and slowly excreted B. Non-toxic, not metabolized, rapidly excreted ✔ C. Absorbed by tissues D. Lipid-soluble 2️⃣ Intravascular Contrast Media MCQ 4 High-osmolality ionic contrast media: A. Contain 3 iodine atoms and dissociate into 2 particles ✔ B. Contain 6 iodine atoms and dissociate into 2 particles C. Do not dissociate in solution D. Are non-ionic MCQ 5 Low-osmolality non-ionic contrast media: A. Dissociate into multiple particles B. Contain 3 iodine atoms and remain as 1 particle ✔ C. Contain 6 iodine atoms D. Are highly toxic MCQ 6 Low-osmolality ionic contrast media: A. Contain 3 iodine atoms B. Contain 6 iodine atoms and dissociate into 2 particles ✔ C. Are non-ionic D. Cause immediate anaphylaxis 3️⃣ Distribution & Excretion MCQ 7 Intravascular contrast media are primarily distributed into: A. Fat tissue B. Bloodstream ✔ C. GI lumen D. Brain parenchyma MCQ 8 Excretion of intravascular contrast media is mainly via: A. Bile B. Lungs C. Kidneys ✔ D. Skin MCQ 9 GI contrast media are excreted via: A. Urine B. Feces ✔ C. Sweat D. Breath 4️⃣ Enteral Contrast Media (Aqueous, Suspension, Tablets) MCQ 10 Aqueous solutions such as diatrizoate: A. Are preferred in GI perforation ✔ B. Cause no osmotic effects C. Produce more artifacts than barium in CT D. Are non-ionic only MCQ 11 Barium sulfate suspension: A. Is absorbed through GI wall B. Provides excellent mucosal visualization ✔ C. Preferred for CT evaluation D. Causes severe renal failure MCQ 12 Iocetamic acid (Cholebrine) is used for: A. Imaging kidneys B. Imaging gallbladder ✔ C. Imaging lungs D. Imaging CNS MCQ 13 After oral administration of iocetamic acid, the gallbladder can generally be visualized after: A. 1–2 hours B. 10–15 hours ✔ C. 30 minutes D. Immediately 5️⃣ Precautions & High-Risk Patients MCQ 14 Contrast agents should be used with caution in: A. Patients with thyroid disorders ✔ B. Healthy adults C. Patients with no allergies D. Athletes MCQ 15 Metformin should be stopped before contrast administration because: A. It interacts with high-osmolality contrast ✔ B. It increases CNS toxicity C. It enhances imaging D. It decreases urine output MCQ 16 Pregnant women should avoid contrast agents because: A. They cause maternal nausea B. They cross the placenta and affect fetal thyroid ✔ C. They have no effect D. They improve imaging 6️⃣ Adverse Reactions MCQ 17 Most common side effects of IV contrast are: A. Seizures B. Nausea, vomiting, hypersensitivity ✔ C. Severe hypotension D. Bronchospasm MCQ 18 Severe adverse reactions require: A. Reassurance only B. No treatment C. Stopping the examination and emergency treatment ✔ D. Waiting 24 hours MCQ 19 Mild adverse reactions include: A. Life-threatening hypotension B. Skin rash or mild nausea ✔ C. Seizures D. Bronchospasm MCQ 20 Bronchospasm, bradycardia, and hypotension can result from: A. High osmolality B. Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase ✔ C. Ionization D. Dehydration of RBCs MCQ 21 Renal toxicity from contrast agents is mainly due to: A. Blockage of tubules and insolubility ✔ B. Vasodilation C. Allergic reaction D. Skin rash MCQ 22 Heat sensation during injection is caused by: A. Low osmolality B. High osmolality ✔ C. Non-ionic media D. Allergy

🔹 CT Scanner Generations Q25. First-generation CT scanners used: A. Fan beam and multiple detectors B. Pencil beam and single detector C. Rotating tube and rotating detectors D. Fixed detector ring Correct answer: B ✔ Q26. Third-generation CT scanners are characterized by: A. Fixed detectors B. Electron beam C. Rotate-rotate geometry D. Slip rings only Correct answer: C ✔ Q27. In fourth-generation CT scanners: A. Both tube and detectors rotate B. Tube rotates, detectors are fixed C. Tube is fixed, detectors rotate D. No rotation occurs Correct answer: B ✔ Q28. Helical CT scanning corresponds to which generation? A. Fifth B. Sixth C. Seventh D. Eighth Correct answer: B ✔ Q29. Slip ring technology allows: A. Image storage B. Continuous rotation of the gantry C. Dose reduction D. Faster reconstruction only Correct answer: B ✔ Q30. Dual-source and dual-energy CT scanners belong to: A. Sixth generation B. Seventh generation C. Eighth generation D. Fifth generation Correct answer: C ✔ 🔹 Types of CT Machines Q31. A diagnostic CT scanner is mainly used for: A. Treatment planning B. Radiation therapy C. Disease diagnosis D. Patient immobilization Correct answer: C ✔ Q32. CT simulators are mainly used in: A. Emergency imaging B. Nuclear medicine C. Radiation oncology D. Cardiac imaging Correct answer: C ✔ Q33. Cone Beam CT is mainly used to: A. Diagnose cancer B. Verify patient positioning C. Measure metabolism D. Replace diagnostic CT Correct answer: B ✔ Q34. MV-CBCT uses: A. Kilovoltage photons B. Ultrasound waves C. Megavoltage photons D. Gamma rays Correct answer: C ✔ Q35. PET/CT scanners provide: A. Anatomical imaging only B. Functional imaging only C. Combined anatomical and functional imaging D. Ultrasound imaging Correct answer: C ✔ Q36. SPECT/CT scanners are mainly used in: A. Radiation therapy delivery B. Diagnostic radiography C. Nuclear medicine imaging D. MRI studies Correct answer: C ✔

MCQs – CT Imaging (Lecture 1) 🔹 Components of CT Imaging System Q1. The major subsystems of a CT imaging system include: A. Gantry, detector, tube B. Operating console, computer, gantry C. Computer, couch, detector D. Generator, tube, detector Correct answer: B ✔ Q2. Which component contains the x-ray tube and detector array? A. Operating console B. Computer C. Gantry D. Optical disk system Correct answer: C ✔ Q3. The patient couch is mainly used to: A. Generate x-rays B. Store images C. Position and move the patient accurately D. Reconstruct images Correct answer: C ✔ 🔹 Operating Console Q4. How many consoles are commonly used by the CT technologist? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four Correct answer: B ✔ Q5. The operating console used for selecting kVp, mA, and slice thickness is: A. Physician console B. Post-processing console C. Operating console D. Storage console Correct answer: C ✔ Q6. Image annotation and labeling are performed on the: A. Operating console B. Post-processing console C. Gantry D. Computer hardware Correct answer: B ✔ Q7. The physician’s console is mainly used to: A. Move the patient couch B. Generate x-rays C. Manipulate images for diagnosis D. Warm up the x-ray tube Correct answer: C ✔ 🔹 Computer System Q8. The CT computer is responsible for: A. Data acquisition only B. Image display only C. Data acquisition, processing, display, and storage D. Patient positioning only Correct answer: C ✔ Q9. CT computers must solve approximately: A. 25,000 equations B. 100,000 equations C. 250,000 equations simultaneously D. 1 million equations Correct answer: C ✔ Q10. An array processor is preferred because it is: A. Smaller B. Cheaper C. Faster than a microprocessor D. Used only for storage Correct answer: C ✔ Q11. The system program is responsible for: A. Image reconstruction B. Quality assurance checks and system startup C. Image storage D. Patient positioning Correct answer: B ✔ Q12. Which parameter is controlled by the data acquisition program? A. Image contrast only B. Patient name C. kVp, mA, pitch, scan speed D. Image printing Correct answer: C ✔ Q13. Reconstruction time refers to: A. Scan duration B. Time to move the couch C. Time between end of scan and image appearance D. Time to store the image Correct answer: C ✔ 🔹 Gantry & High-Voltage Generator Q14. The high-voltage generator in modern CT scanners operates on: A. Low frequency power B. High frequency power C. DC only D. Battery power Correct answer: B ✔ Q15. The high-voltage generator is mounted on the rotating gantry because it is: A. Heavy B. Fixed C. Small in size D. Liquid cooled Correct answer: C ✔ Q16. Design constraints of the high-voltage generator are similar to those of the: A. Detector B. Computer C. X-ray tube D. Console Correct answer: C ✔ 🔹 Detectors Q17. Early CT scanners used which type of detectors? A. Scintillation detectors B. Solid-state detectors C. Gas-filled detectors D. Flat panel detectors Correct answer: C ✔ Q18. Xenon detectors operate by measuring: A. Light emission B. Ionization in air C. Heat production D. Electrical resistance Correct answer: B ✔ Q19. Modern CT scanners use: A. Xenon detectors only B. Gas-filled detectors C. Scintillation solid-state detectors D. Film detectors Correct answer: C ✔ Q20. In scintillation detectors, x-ray photons are converted first into: A. Heat B. Sound C. Light photons D. Electrical current Correct answer: C ✔ Q21. The TFT layer is used to: A. Generate x-rays B. Convert light into electrons C. Cool the detector D. Store images Correct answer: B ✔ 🔹 CT Image Formation Q22. CT images are formed from a: A. Divergent x-ray beam without collimation B. Collimated x-ray beam C. Ultrasound beam D. Magnetic field Correct answer: B ✔ Q23. CT images are typically: A. Sagittal B. Coronal C. Trans-axial (transverse) D. Oblique Correct answer: C ✔ Q24. Trans-axial images are perpendicular to the: A. Short axis of the body B. Long axis of the body C. Sagittal plane D. Coronal plane Correct answer: B ✔

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حفظ التالي فقط: الأساسيات protocol imaging head Axial, transverse Start below skull base → end above vertex No oral contrast ماكو صبغه من الفم IV: 100 mL at 1 mL/s (delay 5 min) ممكن من الوريد انطب Angle: supraorbital meatal line (avoid lens) مكان الزاويه…

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