Orthopediquize

What is the name of amputation showed in below ?

The most common nerve , injured in elbow dislocation is...

What is the treatment of radial nerve injury in humerus close fracture?

32-year-old man sustains a laceration over dorsal aspect of the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint of the middle finger. Several weeks later, he develops progressive flexion of the PIP joint and hyperextension of the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint.

https://t.me/orthopediquize

Which one is true position for hip arthrodesis

Which of the following statements regarding calcific tendinitis of the rotator cuff is TRUE?

Which of the following factors is associated with a poor prognosis after rotator cuff repair?

According to the Bigliani classification, the acromion is divided into three types. Type I (Flat) has a smooth undersurface and is least associated with impingement syndrome. Type II (Curved) demonstrates a gentle downward curvature and is the most common type. Type III (Hooked) has an anterior hook-shaped projection that narrows the subacromial space and is most strongly associated with rotator cuff tears and impingement. Acromial morphology is commonly assessed on the supraspinatus outlet view or MRI

Among the following physical examination tests for subacromial impingement syndrome, which one has been reported to have the highest combined sensitivity and specificity?

A 28-year-old snowboarder presents with persistent lateral ankle pain after a twisting injury. Plain radiographs are initially interpreted as normal. Which diagnosis should be strongly suspected?

https://t.me/orthopediquize

A 35-year-old runner presents with lateral foot pain aggravated by push-off. Tenderness is noted over the cuboid region. MRI shows an accessory ossicle within the peroneus longus tendon with surrounding edema. What is the most appropriate diagnosis?

A 38-year-old man, 4 months post femoral plating, has pain + intermittent wound drainage. X-ray shows nonunion with peri-implant lucency. ESR/CRP elevated.

A 45-year-old man presents 10 months after a tibial shaft fracture treated with intramedullary nailing. He reports persistent pain with weight bearing. Radiographs show abundant callus formation around the fracture site, but there is no bridging union.

A positive O'Brien test is characterized by...